the cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of leukocytes into the area which of the following cells arrives first and in great
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, which type of cells arrive first and in great numbers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first responders. Neutrophils arrive at the site of injury in large numbers to combat pathogens and remove debris. Basophils and lymphocytes are also involved in the inflammatory response, but they are not the first to arrive. Platelets play a role in hemostasis and blood clotting, rather than being the primary cells involved in the initial inflammatory response.

2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.

3. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

4. A nurse is conducting an assessment on a client who presents with symptoms that are characteristic of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What assessment finding would be expected in this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperreflexia. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), hyperreflexia is a common assessment finding due to the degeneration of upper motor neurons. This results in an overactive reflex response to stimuli. Reduced reflexes in all four limbs (choice A) are not typically seen in ALS; instead, hyperreflexia is more common. Decreased cognitive function (choice B) is not a primary characteristic of ALS. Involuntary muscle contractions (choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as dystonia or myoclonus, not ALS.

5. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

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