Nursing Elites

1. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

• A. Anemia
• B. Recurrent infections
• C. Hypersensitivity
• D. Autoantibody production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

2. The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?

• A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
• B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
• C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
• D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?

• A. HIV only infects B cells
• B. HIV is a retrovirus
• C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
• D. After infection, cell death is immediate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.

4. A home care nurse visits a patient who is bed-bound and lives in a 12-story high-rise apartment complex. Her daughter states that she has small red skin lesions over her body and she has been itching. What parasite is most likely responsible for this patient's skin lesions?

• A. Sarcoptes scabiei
• B. Pediculus humanus corporis
• C. Pediculus humanus pubis
• D. Toxoplasma gondii

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Sarcoptes scabiei. Sarcoptes scabiei is a parasitic mite that causes scabies, characterized by small red skin lesions and intense itching. Pediculosis corporis (choice B) refers to body lice, which do not cause the specific symptoms described. Pediculosis pubis (choice C) is caused by pubic lice and presents differently from the symptoms described. Toxoplasma gondii (choice D) is a parasite that causes toxoplasmosis, but it does not typically manifest with small red skin lesions and itching.

5. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?

• A. Serous
• B. Purulent
• C. Fibrinous
• D. Hemorrhagic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purulent. Purulent exudates, or pus, consist primarily of leukocytes and dead cells, indicating a bacterial infection. Serous exudates contain a thin, watery fluid with few leukocytes. Fibrinous exudates are rich in fibrin and are commonly seen in severe inflammation. Hemorrhagic exudates contain red blood cells due to blood vessel damage.

Similar Questions