which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa epogen in a patient with renal failur
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology

1. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

3. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: HbAS indicates sickle cell trait, not full-blown sickle cell anemia. Choice A is incorrect because HbAS indicates the presence of the sickle cell trait. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is characterized by HbSS, not HbAS. Choice D is incorrect as thalassemia is a different type of hemoglobin disorder not indicated by HbAS.

4. Which of the following is a cause of edema?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased plasma proteins. Edema can be caused by decreased plasma proteins, which reduce the osmotic pressure that keeps fluid in the blood vessels. Hypotension (choice B) is low blood pressure and is not a direct cause of edema. Dehydration (choice C) involves a lack of body fluid, but it is not a direct cause of edema. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and not a direct cause of edema.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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