Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?

• A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
• B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
• C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
• D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.

2. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:

• A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
• B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
• C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
• D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.

3. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

4. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?

• A. Monitoring urinary output
• B. Monitoring heart rate and rhythm
• C. Monitoring respiratory rate
• D. Monitoring the client's pain levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.

5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?

• A. Liver dysfunction
• B. Kidney dysfunction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.

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