ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.
2. Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
- A. CSF provides immune protection to the brain and spinal cord by serving as a physical barrier.
- B. CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury.
- C. CSF plays a limited role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and brain.
- D. CSF functions primarily as a medium for the transmission of nerve impulses.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.
3. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?
- A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
- B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
- C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
- D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.
4. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?
- A. Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow
- B. Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia
- C. An aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones
- D. A tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.
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