Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?

• A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
• B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
• C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
• D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.

2. A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?

• A. The mucous membrane is affected.
• B. The respiratory tract is affected.
• C. The skin is affected.
• D. The gastrointestinal tract is affected.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.

3. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

4. When teaching a young woman about the use of hormonal contraceptives, a nurse should emphasize that these drugs are most effective when taken:

• A. Immediately after sexual intercourse.
• B. At the same time each day.
• C. Before going to bed at night.
• D. On an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each day.' Hormonal contraceptives should be taken consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels, which is crucial for their effectiveness. Taking them at random times can increase the risk of contraceptive failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking hormonal contraceptives immediately after sexual intercourse, before going to bed at night, or on an empty stomach does not align with the recommended usage instructions for these drugs.

5. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

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