Nursing Elites

1. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:

• A. eosinophils
• B. neutrophils
• C. monocytes
• D. cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.

2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• C. Increased risk of bone fractures
• D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

3. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

• A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
• C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
• D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

4. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

5. What therapeutic effect is expected from tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• C. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.' Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that specifically targets alpha-1 receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, causing relaxation of smooth muscles. This relaxation results in improved urinary flow and reduced symptoms of BPH. Choice B is incorrect because while tamsulosin does improve urinary flow, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because tamsulosin does not reduce prostate size. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin does not have a primary effect on erectile function.

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