ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Pain and tissue damage
- C. Increased limb function
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.
2. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?
- A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
- B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods
- C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension
- D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.
3. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?
- A. Saquinavir mesylate
- B. Oseltamivir phosphate
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.
4. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Cold and heat application
- C. Therapeutic ultrasound
- D. Biofeedback
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cold and heat application. Cold and heat application are commonly used nonpharmacologic methods for managing pain and can complement pharmacologic treatments. Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and numb localized areas, while heat application can increase blood flow and relax muscles. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (A) focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to manage pain but may not directly supplement pharmacologic analgesia. Therapeutic ultrasound (C) uses sound waves to generate heat within body tissues, which can be therapeutic, but it may not be as directly complementary to pharmacologic analgesia as cold and heat application. Biofeedback (D) involves using electronic devices to help individuals control physiological processes, but its direct role as a supplement to pharmacologic analgesia may be less pronounced compared to cold and heat application.
5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
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