a male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

2. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.

3. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

4. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

5. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.

Similar Questions

When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?
Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.
When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis, what important instruction should the nurse provide about taking this medication?
A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?
Interpret the following arterial blood gas results: PH = 7.30; PaCO2 = 55 mmHg; HCO3 = 24 mEq/L

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses