Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis
• B. hypercortisolism
• C. ACTH stimulation
• D. thyroid crisis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.

2. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

3. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempting to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient's inflammation?

• A. Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
• B. Chemotaxis
• C. Accumulation of leukocytes along epithelium
• D. Phagocytosis of cellular debris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the vascular stage of inflammation, there is an outpouring of exudate into the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling and edema. Choice B, chemotaxis, occurs during the cellular stage of inflammation, where leukocytes move to the site of injury in response to chemical signals. Choice C, accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium, is not a typical event during the vascular stage. Phagocytosis of cellular debris, as in choice D, mainly occurs during the resolution stage of inflammation.

4. A patient is starting on a statin medication for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast to improve absorption.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication to reduce the risk of liver damage.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase its effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Statins like atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Alcohol consumption (choice C) should be moderated but does not need to be completely avoided unless contraindicated. Taking the medication with breakfast (choice B) may not be as effective as taking it at night due to the circadian rhythm of cholesterol synthesis.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?

• A. Headaches and visual disturbances
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
• D. Fatigue and depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.

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