Nursing Elites

1. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?

• A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
• B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
• C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
• D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.

2. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.

3. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

4. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

• A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
• B. To prevent osteoporosis
• C. To increase calcium absorption
• D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

5. A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?

• A. Type I
• B. Type II
• C. Type III
• D. Type IV

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.

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