Nursing Elites

1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:

• A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
• B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
• C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
• D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.

2. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

• A. CD4 helper T cells
• B. CD8 helper T cells
• C. CDC cells
• D. CDC10 cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.

3. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?

• A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
• C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
• D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.

4. A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone. There are a number of other items in the bag other than the phone. The nurse knows that which term best describes one's ability to sense the shape and size of an object in the absence of visualization?

• A. Stereognosis
• B. Graphesthesia
• C. Proprioception
• D. Kinesthesia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stereognosis is the correct answer. It refers to the ability to recognize objects by touch, specifically determining their shape and size without relying on visual cues. Graphesthesia, on the other hand, is the ability to recognize symbols or numbers traced on the skin. Proprioception involves the awareness of body position and movement. Kinesthesia relates to the perception of body movement.

5. A client arrives with symptoms of stroke. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pupil reaction
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical first step in evaluating a potential stroke. Changes in the level of consciousness can indicate the severity and location of brain damage, helping to guide immediate interventions. Assessing blood pressure, pupil reaction, and heart rate are also important aspects of the assessment in a suspected stroke patient. However, the priority is to quickly determine the client's level of consciousness to assess their neurological status.

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