ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:
- A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
- B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
- C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
- D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.
2. After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into:
- A. B cytotoxic cells
- B. Plasma cells
- C. Bursal cells
- D. Clonal equivalents
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After exposure to a specific antigen, B cells undergo differentiation into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to the antigen. Choice A ('B cytotoxic cells') is incorrect because B cells do not differentiate into cytotoxic cells; cytotoxic cells are typically associated with T cells. Choice C ('Bursal cells') is incorrect as bursal cells are specific to birds and not relevant to human immune responses. Choice D ('Clonal equivalents') is incorrect as it does not describe the differentiation process of B cells exposed to antigens.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?
- A. Headaches and visual disturbances
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
- D. Fatigue and depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.
4. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.
5. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access