Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased urine flow
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.

2. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?

• A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
• B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
• C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
• D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.

3. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

4. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Nephrotoxicity
• C. Cardiotoxicity
• D. Pulmonary toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

5. Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.

• A. I
• B. II
• C. III
• D. IV

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve cell-mediated immunity, not an antibody response. This question tests knowledge of hypersensitivity reactions and their classification. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve IgE antibodies, Type II involves IgG or IgM antibodies, and Type III involves immune complex deposition. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve T cells, not antibodies. Therefore, if a person believes that Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response, more teaching is required.

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