Nursing Elites

1. When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
• B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
• C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
• D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.

2. How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?

• A. “Flomax can increase the amount of urine your kidneys produce, resulting in better urine flow.”
• B. “Flomax can relax your prostate and your bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine.”
• C. “Flomax makes your urine less alkaline, reducing the irritation that makes your prostate swell.”
• D. “Flomax increases the strength of your bladder muscle and results in a stronger flow of urine.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.

3. When teaching a young woman about the use of hormonal contraceptives, a nurse should emphasize that these drugs are most effective when taken:

• A. Immediately after sexual intercourse.
• B. At the same time each day.
• C. Before going to bed at night.
• D. On an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each day.' Hormonal contraceptives should be taken consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels, which is crucial for their effectiveness. Taking them at random times can increase the risk of contraceptive failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking hormonal contraceptives immediately after sexual intercourse, before going to bed at night, or on an empty stomach does not align with the recommended usage instructions for these drugs.

4. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?

• A. Liver dysfunction
• B. Kidney dysfunction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.

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