which of the following best describes the role of the kidneys in acid base balance
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

2. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin.' The patient's statement shows a misunderstanding of the correct use of griseofulvin by taking extra medication when she believes her infection is worsening. This behavior indicates a disturbance in her thought process regarding the appropriate use of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not lack of knowledge but rather a misunderstanding leading to inappropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as the patient's actions do not demonstrate effective management of her therapeutic regimen. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is not engaged in self-medication but rather misinterpreting signals and self-adjusting the prescribed medication.

4. A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sickness. Serum sickness is characterized by the formation of immune complexes in response to certain medications or proteins. These immune complexes can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Bronchial asthma (Choice A) is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways not primarily mediated by immune complexes. Contact dermatitis (Choice B) is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, not immune complexes. Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disease where antibodies target self-antigens, but it is not primarily mediated by immune complexes.

5. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

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