Nursing Elites

1. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

• A. Reduction in red blood cell count
• B. Decreased number of infections
• C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
• D. Increase in white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

2. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

3. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

4. Mrs. Mendoza is a 75-year-old client who has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and confabulates. The nurse understands that this client:

• A. Denies confusion by being jovial.
• B. Pretends to be someone else.
• C. Rationalizes various behaviors.
• D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confabulation, a common symptom in dementia, involves filling in memory gaps with fabricated stories rather than intentionally pretending to be someone else (Choice B), denying confusion by being jovial (Choice A), or rationalizing various behaviors (Choice C). Confabulation is not a deliberate act but a memory error that results in the creation of false memories.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

• A. “Take your pill on the same day each week.”
• B. “Watch out for any unusual rash on your trunk and arms, but this isn't cause for concern.”
• C. “Remember to take your chloroquine on an empty stomach.”
• D. “We'll provide you with enough syringes and teach you how to inject the drug.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

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