Nursing Elites

1. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

• A. Decreased pupillary light response
• B. Increased GI motility
• C. Decreased short-term memory
• D. Increased cardiopulmonary rates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
• C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

3. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Bullous impetigo
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

4. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased testosterone production
• B. Decreased libido
• C. Decreased viral shedding
• D. Decreased bacterial replication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.

5. What is the action of amphotericin B?

• A. It binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the membrane.
• B. It binds to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol.
• C. It disrupts the fungal cell walls rather than the cell membrane.
• D. It inhibits glucan synthetase required for glucan synthesis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication that acts by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that disrupt the integrity of the membrane. This action leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. Choice B is incorrect as amphotericin B does not bind to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol. Choice C is incorrect as the drug primarily affects the cell membrane rather than the cell wall. Choice D is also incorrect as amphotericin B does not inhibit glucan synthetase.

Similar Questions