Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
• B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
• C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
• D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

2. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.

• A. Livor mortis
• B. Gangrene
• C. Algor mortis
• D. Rigor mortis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.

3. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Stool for ova and parasites
• C. Colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
• D. Rectal swab for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.

4. What causes osteoporosis?

• A. Poor nutrition in infancy
• B. Regularly weight-bearing exercise
• C. Bone loss, frequently during aging
• D. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is commonly caused by bone loss that occurs with aging, leading to brittle bones. Choice A, poor nutrition in infancy, is not a direct cause of osteoporosis. Choice B, regularly weight-bearing exercise, actually helps in maintaining bone density and strength, reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, cerebral palsy and associated disorders, is not a common cause of osteoporosis.

5. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

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