ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
2. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “The medication may cause diabetes.”
- B. “The medication will cause liver necrosis.”
- C. “The medication may cause kidney damage.”
- D. “The medication will cause pancreatitis.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.
3. A female client with bone metastases secondary to lung cancer is admitted for palliative radiation treatment and pain control. The client is currently experiencing pain that she rates at 9 out of 10. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
- A. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation
- B. Initiating neurostimulation
- C. Heat therapy
- D. Relaxation and distraction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.
4. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:
- A. live and can cause infection.
- B. mutated and infectious.
- C. inactive but still infectious
- D. pathogenic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. Patients who are immunocompromised, like those receiving long-term steroids after an organ transplant, should not receive live vaccines because the live attenuated organisms in these vaccines can cause infections in individuals with weakened immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are live but weakened, not mutated. Choice C is incorrect because while inactive, attenuated vaccines are not infectious. Choice D is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not pathogenic; they are attenuated (weakened) forms of the pathogen.
5. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?
- A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
- B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
- C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
- D. Estradiol (Estrace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.
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