Nursing Elites

1. A client on an acute medicine unit of a hospital with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction is reporting intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which physiologic phenomenon is most likely contributing to her complaint?

• A. Somatic pain resulting from pressure on the parietal peritoneum
• B. Referred pain from her small bowel
• C. Visceral pain resulting from distension and ischemia
• D. Neuropathic pain resulting from autonomic dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visceral pain is associated with distension, ischemia, and inflammation of internal organs. In the case of a small bowel obstruction, the intense, diffuse pain reported by the client is likely due to the distension and ischemia of the small bowel. Somatic pain (Choice A) would be more localized and sharp, typically arising from the parietal peritoneum. Referred pain (Choice B) is pain perceived at a site distant from the actual pathology. Neuropathic pain (Choice D) involves dysfunction or damage to the nervous system and is not typically associated with the described physiologic phenomenon of distension and ischemia in the context of a small bowel obstruction.

2. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?

• A. Vitamin B12
• B. Folate
• C. Iron
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms, including lower extremity paresthesias. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but typically does not present with neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with coagulation abnormalities, not megaloblastic anemia.

3. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:

• A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
• B. Increased cervical mucus production.
• C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
• D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.

4. A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?

• A. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Metyrosine (Demser)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

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