ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. When administering an immunization, which of the following medications should be available?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- C. Physostigmine
- D. Epinephrine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering an immunization, it is essential to have epinephrine available in case of an allergic reaction such as anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the medication of choice for treating severe allergic reactions due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine are antihistamines that can help manage mild allergic reactions but are not the primary medications for severe reactions like anaphylaxis. Physostigmine is not indicated for managing allergic reactions and is used for specific conditions such as anticholinergic toxicity.
2. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?
- A. Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy
- B. Decreases white blood cells related to infection
- C. Decreases growth of blood vessels due to ischemia
- D. Decreases platelet count related to bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.
3. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?
- A. A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years
- B. Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe
- C. An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly
- D. An older adult female who chews gum frequently
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.
4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
- A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
- B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
- C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
- D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.
5. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?
- A. Zoster vaccine
- B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
- D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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