ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?
- A. The mucous membrane is affected.
- B. The respiratory tract is affected.
- C. The skin is affected.
- D. The gastrointestinal tract is affected.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.
2. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Free radicals
- C. Ischemia
- D. Chemical toxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.
3. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.
4. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
5. What should the nurse discuss with a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease regarding the risks of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is not typically used to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as mood and energy level improvements are not the primary risks associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because HRT may actually increase the risk of breast cancer in some individuals.
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