Nursing Elites

1. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

2. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.

3. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

• A. “I will report to the doctor if I have a slow heart rate.”
• B. “The medicine will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth.”
• C. “I will report urinary urgency and incontinence.”
• D. “The medication is given in two doses every day.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

4. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Herpes simplex II virus
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

Similar Questions