a 43 year old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis and the care team has decided on iv fluconazole as a first line treatment when administ
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

2. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.

3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What key contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, so their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while a history of hypertension or use of antihypertensive medications may influence treatment decisions, they are not the key contraindication specifically related to sildenafil use.

4. An older adult patient has asked her primary care provider for a prescription that will help to resolve her “warped toenails.” The care provider has diagnosed the woman with onychomycosis. The nurse should anticipate that this patient will be treated with what drug?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Terbinafine (Lamisil). Terbinafine is commonly used to treat onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the toenails or fingernails. It works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Micafungin (Mycamine) is an antifungal medication used for different types of fungal infections but is not typically used to treat onychomycosis. Voriconazole (Vfend) is another antifungal medication used for specific fungal infections, but it is not a first-line treatment for onychomycosis. Fluconazole (Diflucan) is also an antifungal medication, but it is more commonly used for yeast infections and may not be as effective for treating onychomycosis compared to terbinafine.

5. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.

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