Nursing Elites

1. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

2. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

3. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

• A. Hypertrophic scarring
• B. Dehiscence
• C. Contracture
• D. A keloid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

4. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
• C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
• D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• C. Hemorrhagic stroke
• D. Renal insufficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

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