Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

2. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?

• A. Vitamin B12
• B. Folate
• C. Iron
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms, including lower extremity paresthesias. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but typically does not present with neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with coagulation abnormalities, not megaloblastic anemia.

3. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

4. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.

5. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

• A. Neutralization
• B. Agglutination
• C. Precipitation
• D. Phagocytosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

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