a client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure what is the likely underlying cause
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

2. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. In gouty arthritis, the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the affected joint is caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to the accumulation and subsequent crystallization of urate crystals. Choice A, destruction of proteoglycans, is incorrect as it is not directly related to the crystallization process in gouty arthritis. Choice C, overexcretion of uric acid, is incorrect because gout is primarily associated with underexcretion or decreased excretion of uric acid rather than overexcretion. Choice D, increased absorption of uric acid, is also incorrect as the primary issue in gouty arthritis is the body's inability to properly eliminate uric acid.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

4. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.

5. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.

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