ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
2. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:
- A. live and can cause infection.
- B. mutated and infectious.
- C. inactive but still infectious.
- D. pathogenic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. In patients like the one described with a history of heart transplant and receiving long-term steroids, who are immunocompromised, live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated. Live vaccines contain weakened (attenuated) forms of the virus or bacteria, which can replicate and cause mild infections in healthy individuals but can lead to serious infections in immunocompromised individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not mutated, not inactive, and not pathogenic in healthy individuals, respectively.
3. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What specific contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and Cialis both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure when used together. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not specific contraindications for tadalafil use.
4. A nurse is teaching a class about immune deficiencies, and a person from the audience asks which cells are affected by severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome, and the nurse answers:
- A. B cell deficits
- B. T cell deficits
- C. Complement deficits
- D. B and T cell deficits
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: B and T cell deficits. Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome affects both B and T cells, leading to a severe impairment in the immune system's ability to fight infections. Choice A (B cell deficits) is incorrect because SCID affects not only B cells but also T cells. Choice B (T cell deficits) is incorrect as SCID is characterized by deficits in both B and T cells. Choice C (Complement deficits) is incorrect as SCID primarily involves B and T cell deficiencies rather than complement deficiencies.
5. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:
- A. Hypochromic and microcytic.
- B. Hypochromic and macrocytic.
- C. Normochromic and microcytic.
- D. Normochromic and normocytic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is typically characterized by normochromic (normal hemoglobin content) and normocytic (normal cell size) red blood cells. Choice A, hypochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because hypochromic refers to reduced hemoglobin content and microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells, which are not typically seen in anemia of chronic inflammation. Choice B, hypochromic and macrocytic, is also incorrect as macrocytic refers to larger than normal red blood cells. Choice C, normochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because microcytic red blood cells are smaller than normal. Therefore, the correct classification for anemia of chronic inflammation is normochromic and normocytic.
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