Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

2. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?

• A. Ganciclovir
• B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
• C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
• D. Docosanol (Abreva)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.

3. Although stress exposure initiates integrated responses by multiple systems, which system first activates the most important changes?

• A. Pulmonary
• B. Gastrointestinal
• C. Neuroendocrine
• D. Cardiovascular

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Neuroendocrine system. When the body is exposed to stress, the neuroendocrine system plays a crucial role in initiating the body's response. This system, particularly through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, triggers a cascade of physiological responses to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while other systems like the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems also respond to stress, the neuroendocrine system is primarily responsible for the initial and significant changes in the body's stress response.

4. A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?

• A. Begin an exercise regimen.
• B. Begin smoking cessation.
• C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
• D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.

5. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.

Similar Questions