Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.

3. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?

• A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
• B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
• C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
• D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.

4. While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with:

• A. Increased T cell function
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Increased production of antibodies
• D. Increased levels of circulating autoantibodies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As individuals age, their immune function tends to decrease, making them more susceptible to infections and diseases. Additionally, increased age is associated with higher levels of circulating autoantibodies, which can lead to autoimmune conditions. Choice A is incorrect as aging is not typically associated with increased T cell function. Choice C is also incorrect as aging does not necessarily result in increased production of antibodies. Therefore, the correct answers are B (Decreased immune function) and D (Increased levels of circulating autoantibodies).

5. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

• A. Emotional stress
• B. Dietary indiscretion
• C. Physical overexertion
• D. Adequate rest and relaxation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

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