Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Increased muscle mass
• C. Improved secondary sexual characteristics
• D. Decreased sperm count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.

2. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

• A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
• B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
• C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
• D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

3. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?

• A. Chronic inflammation of the bronchial lining
• B. Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction
• C. Damage to alveoli reducing lung elasticity
• D. Overproduction of mucus by the goblet cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.

4. A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, recent use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for using sildenafil.

5. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding?

• A. Contraindication
• B. Sign
• C. Symptom
• D. Subjective data

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Sign.' In this scenario, bilateral pitting edema is an objective finding that can be observed by others, making it a sign of heart failure. Choice A, 'Contraindication,' refers to a factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure potentially harmful. Choice C, 'Symptom,' is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the client. Choice D, 'Subjective data,' is information that is reported by the client but cannot be directly observed or measured.

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