ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. The medication is expected to reduce the size of the prostate, which should improve urinary symptoms over time.
- B. The medication will improve symptoms within a few days.
- C. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- D. The medication may cause erectile dysfunction as a side effect.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride is expected to reduce the size of the prostate, which should improve urinary symptoms over time, although the effects may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
2. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?
- A. Pulmonary edema
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Reduced cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.
3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
4. A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?
- A. Bronze-colored skin
- B. Decreased iron
- C. Normochromic erythrocytes
- D. Aplastic bone marrow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.
5. When reviewing the purpose/action of neurotransmitters as they interact with different receptors, the nursing instructor gives an example using acetylcholine. When acetylcholine is released at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium of the heart, it is:
- A. positively charged.
- B. inhibitory.
- C. overstimulated.
- D. dormant.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcholine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter at the sinoatrial node. It slows down the heart rate by decreasing the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the heart's natural pacemaker. Neurotransmitters do not have a charge, so choice A is incorrect. Choice C is wrong as overstimulation is not a characteristic of acetylcholine at the sinoatrial node. Choice D is also incorrect because acetylcholine actively influences heart rate regulation when released at the sinoatrial node.
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