Nursing Elites

1. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

• A. glycoprotein
• B. dystrophin
• C. troponin
• D. actinomyosin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

2. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

• A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
• B. To prevent osteoporosis
• C. To increase calcium absorption
• D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

3. Which of the following findings is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?

• A. Decreased jugular venous pressure
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pulmonary edema is a common finding in congestive heart failure. In congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs, causing pulmonary edema. This results in symptoms like shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Jugular venous pressure is often elevated, not decreased in heart failure. Hyperactive bowel sounds and weight loss are not specific findings for congestive heart failure.

4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

5. Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?

• A. Incontinence
• B. Pyelonephritis
• C. Urinary calculi
• D. Cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cystitis. Cystitis specifically refers to the inflammation of the bladder lining. Choice A, Incontinence, refers to the loss of bladder control and is not related to inflammation. Choice B, Pyelonephritis, is the inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis, not the bladder lining. Choice C, Urinary calculi, refers to the formation of stones in the urinary tract and is not related to bladder inflammation.

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