Nursing Elites

1. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as ______ atrophy.

• A. Physiologic
• B. Pathologic
• C. Disuse
• D. Neurogenic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Physiologic.' Physiologic atrophy is a normal part of development, like the reduction in thymus size during childhood. Pathologic atrophy (choice B) refers to tissue wasting due to disease, not a normal process like the reduction in thymus size. Disuse atrophy (choice C) results from a lack of physical activity or stimulation, which is not the case with thymus size reduction. Neurogenic atrophy (choice D) is caused by damage to or diseases of the nerves supplying the muscles, not related to the thymus size reduction seen in childhood.

2. Which of the following statements describes an active cellular membrane exchange process?

• A. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells
• B. The movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration
• C. The movement of insulin using a protein to travel across the cell membrane
• D. Oxygen moving across the pulmonary capillaries to an area of high carbon dioxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In active transport, energy is expended to move substances against their concentration gradient. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells is an example of active transport because it requires energy to pump these ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradients. Choices B, C, and D describe passive processes where substances move along their concentration gradients without the input of energy.

3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. Apply the medication once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting healthcare providers can be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food is not necessary for this specific drug. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken orally, not applied topically.

4. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

5. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

• A. 48 hours.
• B. a week to 10 days.
• C. 2 to 3 weeks.
• D. 4 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

Similar Questions