ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
- A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
- B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
- C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
- D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.
2. A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?
- A. Intramuscularly
- B. Subcutaneously
- C. Intravenously
- D. Orally
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate route to administer an immunization containing aluminum phosphate is intramuscularly. Aluminum phosphate is commonly used as an adjuvant in vaccines to enhance the immune response. Intramuscular administration allows for the vaccine to be delivered into the muscle tissue, where it can be effectively absorbed by the body's immune cells. Subcutaneous administration is not ideal for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate, as it may not elicit the desired immune response. Intravenous administration is typically reserved for specific medications or situations that require rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Oral administration is not suitable for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate as they would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract.
3. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.
4. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.
5. When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
- B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
- C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
- D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access