ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What key contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, so their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while a history of hypertension or use of antihypertensive medications may influence treatment decisions, they are not the key contraindication specifically related to sildenafil use.
2. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.
- A. Allergies and onychomycosis
- B. Type II diabetes and smallpox
- C. Chronic renal failure and macular degeneration
- D. Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.
3. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?
- A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
- B. Activation of opioid receptors
- C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
- D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.
4. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
- A. Avoid lying down after taking the medication.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.
5. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Herpes simplex II virus
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access