ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?
- A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
- B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
- C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
- D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.
2. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?
- A. Deficient knowledge related to correct use of griseofulvin
- B. Effective therapeutic regimen management related to symptom identification
- C. Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin
- D. Ineffective coping related to self-medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin.' The patient's statement shows a misunderstanding of the correct use of griseofulvin by taking extra medication when she believes her infection is worsening. This behavior indicates a disturbance in her thought process regarding the appropriate use of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not lack of knowledge but rather a misunderstanding leading to inappropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as the patient's actions do not demonstrate effective management of her therapeutic regimen. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is not engaged in self-medication but rather misinterpreting signals and self-adjusting the prescribed medication.
3. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.
4. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
- C. Consuming too much food at once
- D. Improved kidney function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.
5. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
- A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
- B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
- C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
- D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
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