a 45 year old client is admitted with new onset status epilepticus what is the priority nursing intervention
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

2. If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Symptom.' Dizziness is a symptom because it is a subjective experience reported by the patient. A 'contraindication' refers to a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful. A 'sign' is an objective finding that can be observed or measured. 'Objective data' refers to measurable and observable information about a patient's condition, which is usually obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. Therefore, in this case, 'Symptom' is the best term to describe the patient's feeling of dizziness.

3. A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.

4. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

5. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.

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