ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
2. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
3. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.
4. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism?
- A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- B. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back for better results.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This method helps avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not recommended as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp and back is not a standard or effective route of administration for testosterone gel. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it ensures proper application and safety.
5. In clients with a cognitive impairment disorder, the phenomenon of increased confusion in the early evening hours is called:
- A. Aphasia.
- B. Agnosia.
- C. Sundowning.
- D. Confabulation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sundowning. Sundowning is a phenomenon where individuals with cognitive impairment experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or early evening. This often occurs in conditions like dementia. Choice A, Aphasia, refers to a language disorder affecting a person's ability to communicate. Choice B, Agnosia, is the inability to recognize objects. Choice D, Confabulation, is the production of false memories without the intention to deceive, often seen in conditions like Korsakoff's syndrome.
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