a 45 year old client is admitted with new onset status epilepticus what is the priority nursing intervention
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

2. While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As individuals age, their immune function tends to decrease, making them more susceptible to infections and diseases. Additionally, increased age is associated with higher levels of circulating autoantibodies, which can lead to autoimmune conditions. Choice A is incorrect as aging is not typically associated with increased T cell function. Choice C is also incorrect as aging does not necessarily result in increased production of antibodies. Therefore, the correct answers are B (Decreased immune function) and D (Increased levels of circulating autoantibodies).

3. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.

4. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).

5. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

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