a 45 year old client is admitted with new onset status epilepticus what is the priority nursing intervention
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

2. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In assessing a child for migraines, asking about food allergies is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his headaches. Food allergies are unrelated to the typical symptoms and triggers of migraines, such as family history, associated symptoms like nausea and vomiting, and pain-free intervals between headaches. Therefore, in this scenario, focusing on food allergies is less relevant for identifying migraines as the cause of the boy's headaches.

4. A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.

5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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