which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident cva
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.

2. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

3. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse provide during patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed tamoxifen, a critical piece of information that the nurse should provide during patient education is that tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is a possible side effect of tamoxifen, but it is not a critical piece of information compared to the risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen is actually used to treat breast cancer, not increase its risk.

4. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.

5. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

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