which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident cva
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.

2. What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Choice A is incorrect because androgen therapy usually does not significantly increase the risk of liver dysfunction. Choice C is incorrect as androgen therapy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it is sometimes used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Choice D is also incorrect as androgen therapy is more likely to improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures.

4. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

5. When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secrete a hormone to increase blood pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Renin is the correct answer. When arterial blood pressure decreases, the kidneys release renin, which triggers a series of reactions ultimately leading to an increase in blood pressure and peripheral resistance. Antidiuretic hormone (choice B) is involved in water retention, atrial natriuretic hormone (choice C) promotes sodium excretion and lowers blood pressure, and insulin (choice D) regulates glucose metabolism, not blood pressure.

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