a 45 year old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction if his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system then the nurse can educat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client's son based on the information provided?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Caregiver role strain.' In the scenario presented, the son expresses that his father's constant confusion, incontinence, and tendency to wander are intolerable. These challenges indicate that the son is experiencing strain in his role as a caregiver. 'Risk for other-directed violence' is not appropriate because there is no indication of violent behavior. 'Disturbed sleep pattern' is not the most relevant nursing diagnosis given the information provided. 'Social isolation' is not the most appropriate choice as the son's concerns are related to the challenges of caregiving, not isolation.

3. What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients on tamoxifen should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; it may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, and it may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

4. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

5. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. What is a key point the nurse should include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, typically 30 minutes to an hour before breakfast, to ensure proper absorption. Taking it with food, calcium supplements, or grapefruit juice can interfere with its absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with calcium supplements can reduce its effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because grapefruit juice can also interfere with levothyroxine absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with food can decrease its absorption.

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