Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

• A. Sympathetic nerves.
• B. Parasympathetic nerves.
• C. Somatic nerves.
• D. Spinal reflexes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

2. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).

3. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

• A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
• B. Presence of unexpected cell types
• C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
• D. Abnormally high numbers of cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

4. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

5. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
• C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
• D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

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