Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

• A. Sympathetic nerves.
• B. Parasympathetic nerves.
• C. Somatic nerves.
• D. Spinal reflexes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

2. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

• A. Take two pills as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• B. Take one pill as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• C. Skip the missed pill and continue the regular schedule.
• D. Take two pills immediately, then continue the regular schedule.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

5. Which of the following eye disorders manifests with red eye, pain, and visual acuity changes?

• A. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• B. Acute closed-angle glaucoma
• C. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
• D. Blepharitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with symptoms such as a red eye, severe pain, and rapid visual acuity changes due to increased intraocular pressure. This condition is considered an ophthalmologic emergency. Bacterial conjunctivitis typically presents with redness, discharge, and irritation but is not associated with severe pain or visual changes. Chronic open-angle glaucoma is usually asymptomatic until advanced stages and does not typically present with acute pain. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins and is characterized by redness and irritation, but it does not cause severe pain or acute visual changes.

Similar Questions