Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

• A. Sympathetic nerves.
• B. Parasympathetic nerves.
• C. Somatic nerves.
• D. Spinal reflexes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

2. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide regarding the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis is to take the medication at the same time each day. This helps to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication without medical advice. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

4. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?

• A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
• B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
• C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
• D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.

5. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right lower quadrant cramping. Crohn's disease commonly presents with abdominal pain, particularly in the right lower quadrant. Choice B, severe bloody diarrhea, is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, are not typical symptoms of Crohn's disease. Choice D is incorrect as Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the rectum.

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