ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in the bone marrow. What cells are formed during this process?
- A. Pancreatic beta cells
- B. Red blood cells
- C. Gastric parietal cells
- D. Neurons and glial cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cells. Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation that primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Red blood cells are one of the main cell types formed during this process. Pancreatic beta cells (Choice A), gastric parietal cells (Choice C), and neurons and glial cells (Choice D) are not formed during hematopoiesis. Pancreatic beta cells are involved in insulin production, gastric parietal cells secrete gastric acid, and neurons and glial cells are part of the nervous system.
2. What condition is a result of Polycythemia Vera, which involves excess red blood cells?
- A. Tissue ischemia & necrosis
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Low blood pressure & heart rate
- D. Increased numbers of infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polycythemia Vera, characterized by excess red blood cells, can cause tissue ischemia and necrosis due to the increased blood viscosity. This condition restricts blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and subsequent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of Polycythemia Vera.
3. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?
- A. Discuss the potential for increased bone density.
- B. Discuss the potential for an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
- C. Discuss the potential for a reduced risk of breast cancer.
- D. Discuss the potential for improved mood and energy levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.
4. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to a bacterial infection. They are phagocytes that engulf and destroy bacteria, playing a crucial role in the early stages of the immune response. Eosinophils are primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Leukotrienes are signaling molecules that contribute to inflammation and immune responses, but they are not cells. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that differentiates into macrophages and dendritic cells, playing a role in immune response but not as immediate as neutrophils.
5. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
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