ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?
- A. The client is a smoker.
- B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
- C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
- D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.
2. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
- A. Adaptation
- B. Pathologic calcification
- C. Apoptosis
- D. Necrosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.
3. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
4. A patient is hospitalized with active tuberculosis. The patient is receiving antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medications. What do you suspect the patient is suffering from?
- A. Human immunodeficiency virus
- B. Drug-resistant tuberculosis
- C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient with active tuberculosis is not responding to antitubercular drug therapy, drug-resistant tuberculosis should be suspected. Drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when the bacteria causing tuberculosis become resistant to the medications being used. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario described does not align with HIV infection, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
5. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:
- A. hypochromic and microcytic.
- B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
- C. normochromic and microcytic.
- D. normochromic and normocytic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.
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