ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?
- A. The client is a smoker.
- B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
- C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
- D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.
2. A primiparous woman tells the nurse that she and her partner are highly reluctant to have their infant vaccinated, stating, “We've read that vaccines can potentially cause a lot of harm, so we're not sure we want to take that risk.” How should the nurse respond to this family's concerns?
- A. “Vaccinations are not without some risks, but these are far exceeded by the potential benefits they offer in preventing serious diseases.”
- B. “The potential risks of vaccinations have been investigated and determined to be minimal compared to the benefits of protecting your child from potentially life-threatening diseases.”
- C. “It is important to follow state laws regarding vaccines, but I understand your concerns. Let's discuss the specific risks and benefits of vaccines for your child.”
- D. “Vaccines indeed cause several serious adverse effects, but these are usually treated effectively, and the benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases far outweigh the risks.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When addressing concerns about vaccination, it is crucial to provide accurate information to help parents make informed decisions. Choice B is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the concerns of the family while emphasizing that the potential risks of vaccinations are minimal compared to the significant benefits of protecting the child from serious diseases. This response shows empathy towards the parents' concerns while also highlighting the importance of vaccination in preventing life-threatening illnesses. Choice A is incorrect because it does not emphasize the significant benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases, which may not effectively address the family's concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses more on state laws rather than addressing the family's specific concerns about vaccine safety. Choice D is incorrect as it may increase the family's anxiety by highlighting adverse effects without adequately emphasizing the benefits of vaccination in disease prevention.
3. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
- B. To synthesize proteins
- C. To store genetic information
- D. To regulate cell growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?
- A. Muscle atrophy
- B. Facial weakness
- C. Ptosis and diplopia
- D. Increased muscle tone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.
5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?
- A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics.
- B. Oral contraceptives are less effective when taken with food.
- C. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no interactions with other medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics, so patients should be informed about the potential need for additional contraception. Choice B is incorrect because taking oral contraceptives with food does not affect their effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives can interact with other medications, especially certain antibiotics, affecting their efficacy.
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