Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?

• A. The thalamus
• B. The pituitary
• C. The hypothalamus
• D. The midbrain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.

2. The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?

• A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
• B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
• C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
• D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.

3. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?

• A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
• B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
• C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
• D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.

4. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer muscle relaxants as prescribed.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living (ADLs).
• C. Provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in physical therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS is to provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration. ALS causes muscle weakness, including the muscles used for swallowing, increasing the risk of aspiration. Providing proper nutrition and support can help prevent this complication. Administering muscle relaxants (Choice A) may not be suitable for ALS as it can further weaken muscles. While assisting with ADLs (Choice B) and encouraging physical therapy (Choice D) are important aspects of care, the priority for a client with ALS is to prevent complications related to swallowing and nutrition.

5. After a thoracentesis on a client with a pleural effusion, which nursing intervention is most important post-procedure?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma.
• C. Monitor vital signs and respiratory status.
• D. Instruct the client to rest and limit physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma. After a thoracentesis, it is crucial to monitor for any bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture site, as this can lead to complications. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is essential but is usually a delayed concern compared to the immediate risk of bleeding post-procedure. While monitoring vital signs and respiratory status (Choice C) is important, assessing for bleeding takes precedence to address any immediate complications. Instructing the client to rest and limit physical activity (Choice D) is relevant for general post-procedure care but is not the most critical intervention in this scenario.

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