Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?

• A. The thalamus
• B. The pituitary
• C. The hypothalamus
• D. The midbrain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.

2. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

• A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
• B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
• C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
• D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

3. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

• A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
• B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
• C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
• D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client's son based on the information provided?

• A. Risk for other-directed violence
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Caregiver role strain
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Caregiver role strain.' In the scenario presented, the son expresses that his father's constant confusion, incontinence, and tendency to wander are intolerable. These challenges indicate that the son is experiencing strain in his role as a caregiver. 'Risk for other-directed violence' is not appropriate because there is no indication of violent behavior. 'Disturbed sleep pattern' is not the most relevant nursing diagnosis given the information provided. 'Social isolation' is not the most appropriate choice as the son's concerns are related to the challenges of caregiving, not isolation.

5. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased testosterone production
• B. Decreased libido
• C. Decreased viral shedding
• D. Decreased bacterial replication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.

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