Nursing Elites

1. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

• A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
• D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

2. Which of the following mediates humoral immunity?

• A. Natural killer cells
• B. T cells
• C. B cells
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Humoral immunity is mediated by B cells, not natural killer cells, T cells, or neutrophils. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are essential components of humoral immunity.

3. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?

• A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
• B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
• C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.

4. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:

• A. confabulation.
• B. delirium.
• C. orientation.
• D. perseveration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.

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