Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?

• A. Headaches and visual disturbances
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
• D. Fatigue and depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.

2. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?

• A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
• B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
• C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
• D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.

3. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

• A. Vaccination against the disease
• B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
• C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
• D. Having the disease in question

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

4. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia?

• A. A decreased platelet cell count
• B. Decreased white blood cell count
• C. Increased red blood cell count
• D. An increased platelet cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased platelet cell count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count, is not typically associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice C, an increased red blood cell count, is not a characteristic finding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D, an increased platelet cell count, is the opposite of what is observed in thrombocytopenia.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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