a nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate clomid for infertility what side effect should the nurse warn the patient
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.

3. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

4. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

5. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

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