ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.
2. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?
- A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
- B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
- C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
- D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.
3. The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
- A. Assistance with ambulation
- B. Regular hearing tests
- C. Monitoring for nausea
- D. Vision assessments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
5. Not realizing that its surface was hot, a woman has quickly withdrawn her hand from the surface of a bowl that she was removing from a microwave. Which phenomena has facilitated the rapid movement of her hand in response to the painful stimulus?
- A. Crossed-extensor reflex
- B. Flexor reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Stretch reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is a protective response that allows a person to quickly remove their hand from a painful stimulus.
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