Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

2. What is a common factor related to all forms of heart failure?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Reduced cardiac output
• D. Jugular vein distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share this common factor, which occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While peripheral edema and pulmonary edema can be symptoms of heart failure, they are not universal to all forms. Jugular vein distention is a sign of right heart failure, not a common factor across all types of heart failure.

3. Peritonitis is a condition that can result in serious complications. Identify one of the complications.

• A. Increased peristalsis
• B. Dizziness and malaise
• C. Sepsis and shock
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Peritonitis can lead to severe complications such as sepsis and shock due to the infection spreading in the abdominal cavity. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, and shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs are not receiving enough blood flow. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased peristalsis is not a typical complication of peritonitis; dizziness and malaise, as well as nausea and vomiting, are symptoms rather than complications of the condition.

4. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

5. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often causes which of the following?

• A. Colon cancer
• B. Hiatal hernia
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Esophageal varices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by weakening the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to inflammation and ulcers. While chronic H. pylori infection is a risk factor for stomach cancer, it is not directly linked to colon cancer (Choice A), hiatal hernia (Choice B), or esophageal varices (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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