Nursing Elites

1. A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell size:

• A. Number
• B. Size
• C. Vacuoles
• D. Lipofuscin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Size. Muscular atrophy is characterized by a reduction in the size of muscle cells. This decrease in size can be due to various factors such as disuse, aging, or disease. Choice A, Number, is incorrect because muscular atrophy does not involve a decrease in the number of muscle cells but rather their size. Choice C, Vacuoles, is incorrect as vacuoles are not directly related to the definition of muscular atrophy. Choice D, Lipofuscin, is incorrect as lipofuscin is a pigment associated with aging and has no direct connection to the decrease in muscle cell size seen in muscular atrophy.

2. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

3. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?

• A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
• B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
• C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
• D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.

4. What specific instructions should the nurse provide for proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) in a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with milk due to potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to take the medication at bedtime specifically. Choice D is incorrect as taking alendronate with food can decrease its absorption.

5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• A. B cell deficiency
• B. T cell deficiency
• C. Combined immunodeficiency
• D. Complement deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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