what is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Peripheral edema
D. Reduced cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.

2. Which term should the nurse use to document a situation in which cells increase in size and function?

A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Hyperplasia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertrophy is the correct term used to describe the situation in which cells increase in size and function. Atrophy (Choice A) is the opposite, indicating a decrease in cell size. Metaplasia (Choice C) refers to the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another. Hyperplasia (Choice D) involves an increase in the number of cells, not just an increase in size and function as in hypertrophy.

3. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?

A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.

4. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

A. Between 96% and 98%
B. Approximately 98.5%
C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
D. Nearly 100%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

5. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

A. Autoimmune
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Alloimmune
D. Allergic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, an alloimmune reaction occurs. In this situation, the mother's immune system recognizes the fetus as foreign due to differences in antigens, leading to an immune response against the fetus. Choice A, 'Autoimmune,' is incorrect because it refers to the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues. Choice B, 'Anaphylaxis,' is not the correct answer as it is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Choice D, 'Allergic,' is also incorrect as it refers to an immune response triggered by allergens, not antigens expressed by the fetus.