a client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision which cranial nerve is most likel
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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

2. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

3. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

4. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucagon. Glucagon helps raise blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, thus aiding in maintaining homeostasis. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), choice A, functions in regulating water balance in the body, not blood sugar levels. Insulin, choice B, lowers blood sugar levels by facilitating glucose uptake by cells. Thyroxine, choice D, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism and has no direct effect on blood sugar levels.

5. After experiencing several months of worsening nocturia, a patient has been assessed for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and has begun drug treatment. In addition to nocturia, what other sign or symptom is most likely to accompany BPH?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hematuria. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is a common sign associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). It can occur due to irritation or damage to the prostate tissue. While urinary frequency and erectile dysfunction can also be seen in BPH patients, hematuria is more specifically linked to prostate issues. Flank pain is not typically a direct symptom of BPH.

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