Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus has just undergone a right, below-the-knee amputation following gangrene infection. A few days after the amputation, the client confides in the nurse that he still feels his right foot. Knowing the pathophysiologic principles behind this, the nurse can:

• A. administer a psychotropic medication to help the client cope with the sensation of his amputated leg.
• B. explain that many amputees have this sensation and that one theory surmises the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue of the amputation site.
• C. call the physician and request an order for a psychological consult.
• D. educate the client that this area has an unusually abnormal increase in sensitivity to sensation but that it will go away with time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The sensation of feeling the amputated limb is known as phantom limb pain, which is common after amputation. One theory suggests that it occurs because the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue at the amputation site. Administering psychotropic medication (choice A) is not the first-line treatment for phantom limb pain. Requesting a psychological consult (choice C) is premature without first addressing the known pathophysiological basis of phantom limb pain. Educating the client that the sensitivity will go away with time (choice D) is not entirely accurate as phantom limb pain can persist long-term.

2. What assessment is the nurse performing when a client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides, and then asked to close the eyes while the nurse observes for a full minute?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Weber test
• C. Rinne test
• D. Babinski test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Romberg test. The Romberg test is used to assess balance and proprioception. During the test, the client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides to observe their balance. Then, the client is asked to close their eyes while the nurse continues to observe for a full minute. This test helps in detecting any issues with proprioception and balance, which may be compromised in conditions affecting the nervous system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Weber test is used to assess hearing in each ear, the Rinne test is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound, and the Babinski test is used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract.

3. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

4. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?

• A. Intractable seizure disorders
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Organ transplantation
• D. HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.

5. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?

• A. Testosterone therapy increases the risk of cardiovascular events, so regular monitoring is essential.
• B. Testosterone therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
• C. Testosterone therapy can lead to prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Testosterone therapy can lead to bone fractures, so bone density should be monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.

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