ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?
- A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
- B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
- C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
- D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration is more likely to occur in a 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese due to the increased risk of conditions like diabetes and heart disease that can lead to fluid imbalances. Being morbidly obese can also strain the body's systems, increasing the need for water. The other choices are less likely to experience dehydration as a primary concern. While being a bodybuilder may require strict hydration practices, dehydration is more prevalent in individuals with conditions like obesity.
2. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Assess for pain.
- B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
- C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
- D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.
3. What critical point should the nurse include in patient education regarding tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with breast cancer?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, redness, and pain in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing hot flashes, weight gain, fluid retention, or decreasing the risk of osteoporosis.
4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access