Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Indigestion
• C. Beta cell destruction
• D. ABO transfusion reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.

2. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?

• A. They are considered a normal variant.
• B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
• C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
• D. They are associated with aging.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.

3. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?

• A. Increased wheezing
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Improved exercise tolerance
• D. Decreased sputum production

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.

4. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

• A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
• B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
• C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
• D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Hypertensive crisis
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

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