which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.

2. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

3. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

4. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia, which is an increased heart rate, is a classic clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, there is an excess production of thyroid hormones, leading to an increased metabolic rate. This increased metabolism can cause symptoms such as a rapid heart rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, weight gain, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a slower metabolic rate.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

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