which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?

A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.

2. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?

A. Frequent infections and low neutrophil levels
B. Fatigue and increased heart rate
C. Agitation and changes in cognition
D. Increased blood pressure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.

3. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

A. Between 96% and 98%
B. Approximately 98.5%
C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
D. Nearly 100%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

4. The nurse knows which phenomenon listed below is an accurate statement about axonal transport?

A. Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components.
C. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens.
D. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Axonal transport involves the movement of materials to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components, which is essential for cell survival. Choice A is incorrect because while anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are involved in the movement of materials, they do not specifically relate to the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the CNS. Choice C is incorrect because the unidirectional nature of axonal transport does not primarily function to protect the CNS against pathogens. Choice D is incorrect as axonal transport is responsible for the movement of various materials, not just electrical impulses.

5. Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE

Correct answer: C

Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to challenge the antigen during an immune response. IgM is the primary antibody produced during the initial or primary immune response. It is efficient in agglutination and complement activation, making it crucial in the early stages of defense. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation and is involved in secondary immune responses. IgE is primarily associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Therefore, IgM is the correct choice as it acts first during the immune response, while the other immunoglobulins have different roles and functions.