ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
- A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
- B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
- C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
- D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.
2. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
3. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Migraine
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Hypertensive emergency
- D. Tension headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.
4. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?
- A. Bronchospasm after exercise
- B. IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
- C. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
- D. Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.
5. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?
- A. Testosterone therapy increases the risk of cardiovascular events, so regular monitoring is essential.
- B. Testosterone therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
- C. Testosterone therapy can lead to prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Testosterone therapy can lead to bone fractures, so bone density should be monitored.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.
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