ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Migraine headache
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
- D. Sinus headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.
2. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
3. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:
- A. eosinophils
- B. neutrophils
- C. monocytes
- D. cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.
4. The nurse knows which phenomenon listed below is an accurate statement about axonal transport?
- A. Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS).
- B. Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components.
- C. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens.
- D. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Axonal transport involves the movement of materials to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components, which is essential for cell survival. Choice A is incorrect because while anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are involved in the movement of materials, they do not specifically relate to the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the CNS. Choice C is incorrect because the unidirectional nature of axonal transport does not primarily function to protect the CNS against pathogens. Choice D is incorrect as axonal transport is responsible for the movement of various materials, not just electrical impulses.
5. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.
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