ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?
- A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
- B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.
2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
3. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
4. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.
5. A primiparous woman tells the nurse that she and her partner are highly reluctant to have their infant vaccinated, stating, “We've read that vaccines can potentially cause a lot of harm, so we're not sure we want to take that risk.” How should the nurse respond to this family's concerns?
- A. “Vaccinations are not without some risks, but these are far exceeded by the potential benefits they offer in preventing serious diseases.”
- B. “The potential risks of vaccinations have been investigated and determined to be minimal compared to the benefits of protecting your child from potentially life-threatening diseases.”
- C. “It is important to follow state laws regarding vaccines, but I understand your concerns. Let's discuss the specific risks and benefits of vaccines for your child.”
- D. “Vaccines indeed cause several serious adverse effects, but these are usually treated effectively, and the benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases far outweigh the risks.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When addressing concerns about vaccination, it is crucial to provide accurate information to help parents make informed decisions. Choice B is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the concerns of the family while emphasizing that the potential risks of vaccinations are minimal compared to the significant benefits of protecting the child from serious diseases. This response shows empathy towards the parents' concerns while also highlighting the importance of vaccination in preventing life-threatening illnesses. Choice A is incorrect because it does not emphasize the significant benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases, which may not effectively address the family's concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses more on state laws rather than addressing the family's specific concerns about vaccine safety. Choice D is incorrect as it may increase the family's anxiety by highlighting adverse effects without adequately emphasizing the benefits of vaccination in disease prevention.
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