Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

• A. Decreased insulin production
• B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
• C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• D. Increased production of insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.

2. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

3. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

• A. Lymphokine-producing cells
• B. Cytotoxic T cells
• C. Helper T cells
• D. Macrophages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

4. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. Discuss the potential for increased bone density.
• B. Discuss the potential for an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
• C. Discuss the potential for a reduced risk of breast cancer.
• D. Discuss the potential for improved mood and energy levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.

5. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?

• A. They are considered a normal variant.
• B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
• C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
• D. They are associated with aging.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.

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